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vegito616 Expert Cheater
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 7:34 am Post subject: |
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Wait, how can 5/23 and 11/23 be right? Since it doesn't matter WHAT unknown stone you pick, the probability of picking one is 12/23 EVERY SINGLE TIME. And the probability of picking a diamond and a ruby right after each other are their probabilities multiplied together. So as blland stated, the probability for C is 30/529
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NINTENDO Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Blader I post too much
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 7:49 am Post subject: |
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Umm isn't the probability always 1? You didn't say how much times they can pick it up, so they just keep picking one, putting it back and so on unless you forgot to say how much they were allowed to take.
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NINTENDO Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 7:59 am Post subject: |
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| Blader wrote: | | Umm isn't the probability always 1? You didn't say how much times they can pick it up, so they just keep picking one, putting it back and so on unless you forgot to say how much they were allowed to take. |
Oh.. well .)
I kind of missed that :]
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Blader I post too much
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 8:00 am Post subject: |
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So I win?
Btw, why is this in general programming? o.o
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vegito616 Expert Cheater
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 8:20 am Post subject: |
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| Use your fucking brain, its simple probability. The chance of drawing A single unknown stone is not 1/23 because there are 12 unknown stones in there. So the chance of drawing an unknown stone is 12/23. Its as if you have a spinner, with two red sections, two green sections, and two yellow sections. If you spin the spinner you have a 2/6 or 1/3 chance of landing on the red. And since I am assuming each of these events are independent of each other(since you never said choosing the unknown stones consecutively) each chance of drawing an unknown stone is 12/23. And since I am assuming you meant to choose the diamond and ruby consecutively, you multiply the chances of drawing each, resulting in 30/529
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Blader I post too much
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 8:26 am Post subject: |
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Oh wait, I just read it again, I forgot something
The probability for all of them is 0, because you can't draw more than 1 stone at a time
You should really edit it, since there are many flaws...
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Trow Grandmaster Cheater
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 8:35 am Post subject: |
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the answer is always 42
*ducks*
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NINTENDO Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 8:36 am Post subject: |
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| vegito616 wrote: | | Use your fucking brain, its simple probability. The chance of drawing A single unknown stone is not 1/23 because there are 12 unknown stones in there. So the chance of drawing an unknown stone is 12/23. Its as if you have a spinner, with two red sections, two green sections, and two yellow sections. If you spin the spinner you have a 2/6 or 1/3 chance of landing on the red. And since I am assuming each of these events are independent of each other(since you never said choosing the unknown stones consecutively) each chance of drawing an unknown stone is 12/23. And since I am assuming you meant to choose the diamond and ruby consecutively, you multiply the chances of drawing each, resulting in 30/529 |
No i failed.
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Slugsnack Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 9:41 am Post subject: |
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You haven't fully specified the parameters for your question so it's not solvable. You could be describing a random variables, let's call it X, Y and Z that are of a binomial distribution:
ie. X = Number of diamonds picked
Y = Number of rubies picked
Z = Number of unknown stones picked
Therefore since these would be of a binomial distribution:
X ~ B(n,5/23)
Y ~ B(n,6/23)
Z ~ B(n,12/23)
But you haven't told us what n is (ie. number of trials).
If you were trying to find a solution for something like P(X=3), then you would go about it like this:
nC3 * (5/23)^3 * (1 - 5/23)^20
The reason being that finding the probability of a certain outcome in a binomial distribution is of this form:
X ~ B(n,p)
P(X=x) = nCx * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)
However you could very well be badly describing a Poisson distribution too..
k, I'll stop but you should get the idea.
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NINTENDO Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 9:50 am Post subject: |
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Could you stop posting sometime?
I made a mistake, ok?.
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Trow Grandmaster Cheater
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 9:53 am Post subject: |
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but thread starter says that it's easy level and implies the message "nobody needs a manual"... so I think n for your number of trials is "as many times as he implies".
k, I'll stop but you should get the idea.
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Slugsnack Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Posted: Sun Jan 20, 2008 10:32 am Post subject: |
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| n must be a finite number, furthermore if it is 'large', you shouldn't be using a binomial distribution, but rather approximating it to something like a normal or poisson distribution.
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XxOsirisxX Grandmaster Cheater Supreme
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Posted: Mon Jan 21, 2008 10:02 pm Post subject: |
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He make a mistake, but 2nd one answer is 100%.
You have stolen a sack of rare stones from santa.
Question :
B]
2 rare ones
If the sack is of rare stones, the posibility of get rare ones is 100%, since alls are rare ones.
O yeah, Blader is right, he did'nt say the amount of time to pick up, so each answer would be 0/23 / 0/46.
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